freecoachingclass

2015-10-12T20:57:00.000-07:00

SPOKEN ENGLISH COURSE

question paper

2009-06-10T05:56:00.000-07:00

1.Suresh is taller than Prabhu but shorter than Ram,
Prabhu is as tall as Neeraj but taller than Nilesh. Which
of the following statements is definitely true for Neeraj?
(a)Neeraj is shorter than Nilesh
(b)Neeraj is the tallest
(c)Neeraj is the shortest
(d)Neeraj is taller than Nilesh
(e)None of these
Ans:( d ) Neeraj is taller than Nilesh

2.How many such pairs of letters are there in the
word STAINLESS each of which has as many letters between
them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in
the same sequence?
(a)Two
(b)Three
(c)Four
(d)Five
(e)None of these
Ans:( e ) None of these

3.What will come in place of the question mark (?) in
the following sequence?
ARRANGEMENTS, RRANGEMENT, RANGEMEN, ?, NGEM
(a)RANGEME
(b)ANGEME
(c)ANGEMENT
(d)NGEMEN
(e)None of these
Ans:( b ) ANGEME

4.Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
(a)Baking
(b)Steaming
(c)Cooking
(d)Frying
(e)Boiling
Ans:( c ) Cooking

5.Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and so form a group which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
(a)Radish
(b)Orange
(c)Pear
(d)Mango
(e)Apple
Ans:( a ) Radish

6.Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
(a)Earth
(b)Moon
(c)Saturn
(d)Pluto
(e)Venus
Ans:( b ) Moon

7.If water is called food, food is called drink,
drink is called blue, blue is called red, red is called
white and white is called brown, then what is the colour
of ?blood? ?
(a)Blue
(b)Red
(c)Brown
(d)White
(e)Drink
Ans:( d ) White

8.In a certain code language, the word ENQUIRY is
written as YRIUQNE. How will the word REQUIRE be written
in the code language ?
(a)QERUERI
(b)REQUERI
(c)ERIUQER
(d)IREUQER
(e)None of these
Ans:( c ) ERIUQER

9.In a certain code language DESERT is written
RTSEDE. How will the word FAULTS the written in that code
language?
(a)TSULFA
(b)AFLUST
(c)LUAFST
(d)UAFSTL
(e)None of these
Ans:( a ) TSULFA

10.How many meaningful English word can be formed by
using the second, the fifth, the seventh and the tenth
letters of the word APPROPRIATION, each only once, but in
different sequence ?
(a)One
(b)Two
(c)Three
(d)None of these
(e)More than three
Ans:( a ) One

Directions (Qs. 11?15) :What will come in place of
the question mark (?) in the following questions?
11.7589 ? ? = 3434
(a)3721
(b)4155
(c)3246
(d)11023
(e)None of these
Ans:( b ) 4155

12.300 + (10)2 x 2 = ?
(a)450
(b)800
(c)500
(d)550
(e)None of these
Ans:( c ) 500

13.12.05 x 5.4 Ã· 0.6 = ?
(a)105.55
(b)108.45
(c)118.45
(d)118.55
(e)None of these
Ans:( b ) 108.45

14.2435 Ã· 24 = 24?
(a)2.5
(b)3.5
(c)2
(d)3
(e)None of these
Ans:( a ) 2.5

15.78 x 14 + 7645 ? ? = 8247
(a)580
(b)590
(c)490
(d)480
(e)None of these
Ans:( c ) 490

Directions (Qs. 16?17) :
I.?P + Q? means P is the brother of Q
II.?P x Q? means P is the mother of Q
III.?P Ã· Q? means P is the sister of Q
IV.?P ? Q? means Q is the father of P
16.Which of the following represents ?B is the
material uncle of C??
(a)B + A x C
(b)B x C + A
(c)B Ã· C + A
(d)B x A + c
(e)None of these
Ans:( a ) B + A x C

17.Which of the following statements is not necessary
to answer the above question?
(a)Only I and II
(b)Only III
(c)Only III and IV
(d)Either II or III
(e)All are necessary
Ans:( c ) Only III and IV

18.Pointing towards a woman a boy said, ?she is the
only daughter of my mother?s brother?s only brother-in-
law?. How the woman is related to the boy?
(a)Mother
(b)Aunt
(c)Sister-in-law
(d)Sister
(e)None of these
Ans:( d ) Sister

19.Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and hence form a group. Which one of the following
does not belong to that group?
(a)63
(b)64
(c)39
(d)48
(e)79
Ans:( e ) 79

20.Ina certain code language DOWNBEAT is written as
TABEWNDO. How will the word PROSPECT be written in that
code language?
(a)RPSOEPTC
(b)TCPEOSPR
(c)ORPSPTCE
(d)TCPREPOS
(e)None of these
Ans:( b ) TCPEOSPR

Directions (Qs. 21?26) :What will come in place of
the question mark (?) in the following questions?
21.37.5 Ã· (27)1.5 x 92 = 3?
(a)5
(b)4.5
(c)7
(d)6.5
(e)None of these
Ans:( c ) 7

22.28% of 450 + 45% of 280 = ?
(a)126
(b)252
(c)324
(d)212
(e)None of these
Ans:( b ) 252

23.1027.05 ? 314.005 + 112.25 = ?
(a)825.395
(b)825.095
(c)825.305
(d)825.295
(e)None of these
Ans:( d ) 825.295

24.(103.7 x 101.3)2 = 10?
(a)6
(b)7
(c)10
(d)3
(e)None of these
Ans:( c ) 10

25.40.83 x 1.02 x 1.2 = ?
(a)49.97592
(b)41.64660
(c)58.7952
(d)42.479532
(e)None of these
Ans:( a ) 49.97592

26.3978 + 112 x 2 = ? Ã· 2
(a)8180
(b)2101
(c)4090
(d)8404
(e)None of these
Ans:( d ) 8404

27.Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and hence form a group. Which one of the following
does not belong to that group?
(a)21
(b)35
(c)49
(d)63
(e)56
Ans:( c ) 49

28.P is heavier than Q but lighter than R. Q is
heavier than T. S is heavier than P but lighter than V.
Who among them is the lightest?
(a)V
(b)S
(c)T
(d)R
(e)None of these
Ans:( c ) T

29.In a certain code language TRANSPORT is written as
RTASNPORT. How will the word GATEHOUSE be written in that
code language ?
(a)ETGAHOESU
(b)ETAGHESUO
(c)AGTHEOUSE
(d)AGETHUOES
(e)None of these
Ans:( c ) AGTHEOUSE

30.In a certain code language ?si re ga? MEANS ?Shyam
is smart? and ?pa si ga? means? Animesh is smart?. What is
the code for ?smart? in that code language?
(a)si
(b)re
(c)ga
(d)pa
(e)None of these
Ans:( e ) None of these

Directions (Qs. 31?34) :What will come in place of
the question-mark (?) in the following questions ?
31.12.05 x 5.4 Ã· 0.3 = ?
(a)108.55
(b)216.90
(c)118.45
(d)118.55
(e)None of these
Ans:( b ) 216.90

32.99 Ã· 11 + 7 x 16 = (?)2
(a)11
(b)121
(c)12
(d)144
(e)None of these
Ans:( a ) 11

33.8400 Ã· 120 x 15 + 150 = ?
(a)1050
(b)1200
(c)1100
(d)1514
(e)None of these
Ans:( b ) 1200

34.45% of 1500 + 35% of 1700 = ?% of 3175
(a)40
(b)55
(c)45
(d)35
(e)None of these
Ans:( a ) 40

Directions (Qs. 35?39) :Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given below:
The number 0 to 9 are coded in the following manner
considering the exception given below:

36970281
54
HPVSGDJK
MR
.
Exception 1:If a number starts and ends with non-zero
odd number then the first and the last digits should be
coded as X and Z.
Exception 2:If a number starts and ends with non-zero
even number then the first and the last digits should be
coded as A and B respectively.
35.What is the code for 5 2 1 8 6 3 ?
(a)MDKJPH
(b)ZDKJPX
(c)XDKJPZ
(d)ADKJPB
(e)None of these
Ans:( c ) XDKJPZ

36.What is the code for 492310 ?
(a)RVDHKG
(b)AVDHKB
(c)VRDKHG
(d)BVDHKA
(e)None of these
Ans:( a ) RVDHKG

37.Which of the following numbers is represented by
ASGHKB?
I. 670312II. 470313III. 270318
(a)Only I and III
(b)Only I and II
(c)Only Ii and III
(d)Only I
(e)Only III
Ans:( a ) Only I and III

38.What is the code for 3186452 ?
(a)HKJDMRP
(b)KHPJMRD
(c)DMRPHKJ
(d)HKJPRMD
(e)None of these
Ans:( d ) HKJPRMD

39.Which of the following numbers is represented by
DPJRSV ?
(a)628794
(b)268479
(c)246793
(d)168359
(e)None of these
Ans:( b ) 268479

40.Animesh and Anand together got a profit of Rs.
9,600 and they distributed between themselves in the ratio
of 5 : 7. What is the share of Animesh?
(a)Rs. 4,000
(b)Rs. 5,600
(c)Rs. 4,800
(d)Rs. 5,200
(e)None of these
Ans:( a ) Rs. 4,000

41.A man bought some fruits at the rate of 16 for Rs.
24 and sold them at the rate of 8 for Rs. 18. What is the
profit per cent?
(a)50%
(b)60%
(c)40%
(d)25%
(e)None of these
Ans:( a ) 50%

42.A cow is tethered in the middle of a field with a
14 feet long rope. If the cow grazes 100 sq feet per day
approximately. What time will be taken by the cow to graze
the grazeable area of the field?
(a)2 days
(b)18 days
(c)24 days
(d)6 days
(e)None of these
Ans:( d ) 6 days

43.7/8 of 3/7 of a number is equal to 25% of 45% of
another number. What is the ratio of the first and the
second numbers respectively?
(a)3 : 7
(b)9: 10
(c)3 : 10
(d)3 : 2
(e)None of these
Ans:( c ) 3 : 10

44.Mr. Rahul spends 30% of his monthly salary on
domestic expenses. He spends respectively 20% and 10% of
the remaining salary on education of children and
conveyance. Of the remaining amounts now he spends
respectively 20% and 30% on entertainment and maintenance
of house. He saves Rs. 5512.50. what is the monthly
salary of Mr. Rahul?
(a)Rs. 22,500
(b)Rs. 20,000
(c)Rs. 25,000
(d)Rs. 24,500
(e)None of these
Ans:( a ) Rs. 22,500

45.The ratio of the present ages of Suman and Renu is
5 : 7 respectively. Four years hence the ratio will become
3 : 4 respectively. What is the present age of Renu in
years?
(a)28
(b)24
(c)20
(d)21
(e)None of these
Ans:( a ) 28

46.If instead of multiplying a number by 7 the number
was divided by 7. What should be the percentage error?
(a)100%
(b)96.8%
(c)92.70%
(d)97.9%
(e)None of these
Ans:( d ) 97.9%

47.A car covers a certain distance taking 7 hours in
forward journey. During the return journey, speed was
increased by 12 kmph and it takes 5 hours. What is total
distance covered?
(a)210 km
(b)70 km
(c)440 km
(d)220 km
(e)None of these
Ans:( a ) 210 km

48.The LCM of two numbers is 2079 and their HCF is
27. If one of the numbers is 189, find the other number.
(a)248
(b)128
(c)297
(d)336
(e)None of these
Ans:( c ) 297

49.The average between a two digit number and the
number obtained by interchanging the digits is 9. What is
the difference between the two digits of the number?
(a)8
(b)2
(c)5
(d)Cannot be determined
(e)None of these
Ans:( d ) Cannot be determined

50.A circle and a rectangle have the same perimeter.
The sides of the rectangle are 18 cm and 26 cm. What will
be the area of the circle?
(a)88 cm2
(b)1250 cm2
(c)154 cm2
(d)128 cm2
(e)None of these
Ans:( e ) None of these

51.The difference between a number and its three-fifth
is 50. What is the number?
(a)75
(b)100
(c)125
(d)80
(e)None of these
Ans:( c ) 125

52.Some persons decide to raise Rs. 3 lakhs by equal
contribution from each of them. If they contributed Rs. 50
extra each, the contribution increased to Rs. 3.25 lakhs.
How many persons were there ?
(a)400
(b)500
(c)600
(d)700
(e)None of these
Ans:( b ) 500

53.A sample of milk contains 5% water. What quantity
of pure milk should be added to 10 litres of milk to reduce
the water content to 2%?
(a)5 litres
(b)7 litres
(c)15 litres
(d)12 litres
(e)None of these
Ans:( c ) 15 litres

54.The difference between the compound interest and
the simple interest on a certain sum of money at 5% per
annum for 2 years is Rs. 1.50. Find the sum.
(a)Rs. 800
(b)Rs. 1200
(c)Rs. 400
(d)Rs. 600
(e)None of these
Ans:( d ) Rs. 600

55.A, B and C contract a work for Rs. 550. Together A
and B are supposed to do 7/11th of the work. How much does
C get?
(a)Rs. 270
(b)Rs. 200
(c)Rs. 310
(d)Rs. 175
(e)None of these
Ans:( b ) Rs. 200

Directions (Qs. 56?60) :Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given below:
There is a five storey building including the
ground floor and each floor has only one flat. All these
flats have been occupied by the five Bank Probationary
Officers. Each officer owns a different car. The cars
are : Indica, Ikon, Indigo, Elentra and Santro. The five
officers?A, B, X, Y and Z ? are employed in the different
banks, viz., State Bank of India (SBI), Punjab National
Bank (PNB), UCO Bank, ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank but not
necessarily in the same order. Mr. X works in HDFC Bank
and lives on the ground floor. The officer who lives on
fourth (top) floor does not own Elentra or Santro. Mr. B
works in PNB and owns Elentra car. The officer who works
in UCO Bank and lives on second floor owns Indica car. Mr.
Y lives on third floor and owns Indigo. Mr. Z works in
ICICI Bank and Mr. Y works in State Bank of India.
56.Who among the following does own Santro car ?
(a)A
(b)B
(c)X
(d)Cannot be determined
(e)None of these
Ans:( c ) X

57.Who lives on the second floor ?
(a)X
(b)Y
(c)Z
(d)A
(e)None of these
Ans:( d ) A

58.On which floor does B live ?
(a)First
(b)Second
(c)Fourth
(d)Cannot be determined
(e)None of these
Ans:( a ) First

59.Who among the following owns Indica car ?
(a)X
(b)A
(c)Y
(d)B
(e)None of these
Ans:( b ) A

60.Which of the following combinations of the officer
and car is correct ?
(a)Mr. X :Elentra
(b)Mr. Y:Ikon
(c)Mr. A:Santro
(d)Mr. Z:Ikon
(e)None of these
Ans:( d ) Mr. Z:Ikon

61.For which of the following values of x the
inequality x (x + 3) <> 2, x < -5 (b)-3 <> 5
(e)None of these
Ans:( b ) -3 <>Ans:( a ) 24 hours

63.If the diagonals of a rhombus are 8 cm and 10 cm
respectively what will be the area of the rhombus?
(a)35 sq cm
(b)40 sq cm
(c)30 sq cm
(d)20 sq cm
(e)None of these
Ans:( b ) 40 sq cm

64.Some toys were distributed equally among 18
children in such a way that the number of toys each child
gets is equal to the total number of children and after
distribution 6 toys are left out. What was the total
number of toys?
(a)324
(b)330
(c)336
(d)320
(e)None of these
Ans:( b ) 330

65.A shopkeeper allows 10% discount on the price of an
article and sells it for Rs. 7,600. What is the market
price of the article ?
(a)Rs. 8,250
(b)Rs. 8,500
(c)Rs. 8,540
(d)Rs. 8,415
(e)None of these
Ans:( e ) None of these

Directions (Qs. 66?70) :Below in each question five
words are given. Which of them will come in the middle
place if all of them are arranged alphabetically? Serial
number of that word is the answer.

66.(a)Encounter
(b)Enormous
(c)Engineer
(d)Enlarge
(e)Encroach
Ans:( c ) Engineer

67.(a)Network
(b)Nepotism
(c)Neutral
(d)Neighbour
(e)Nervous
Ans:( e ) Nervous

68.(a)Granular
(b)Gratuity
(c)Gravitate
(d)Greatness
(e)Grateful
Ans:( b ) Gratuity

69.(a)Residential
(b)Reputation
(c)Resistant
(d)Residence
(e)Reschedule
Ans:( d ) Residence

70.(a)Bracelet
(b)Boutique
(c)Bourgeois
(d)Brackish
(e)Bramble
Ans:( a ) Bracelet

Directions (Qs. 71?75) :the number group in each
question is to be codified in the following codes :

Number3870196
425
CodesNLDMHBV
RGP
.
You have to find out which of the answers (A), (B), (C) and
(D) has the correct coded form of the given number group.
If none of the coded form is correct, mark (E) as the
answer.
71.6182734
(a)HBGPLDM
(b)VBLGRNH
(c)VHLGDNR
(d)BHNDGHR
(e)None of these
Ans:( c ) VHLGDNR

72.349805
(a)NRBLMP
(b)BRNLPM
(c)LRDGMP
(d)PMLHBR
(e)None of these
Ans:( a ) NRBLMP

73.57920642
(a)DPBGMVRH
(b)PDBRLNGH
(c)MVRGHLDP
(d)PDBGMVRG
(e)None of these
Ans:( d ) PDBGMVRG

74.7561024
(a)DPVGMRH
(b)DPVHMGR
(c)HMRLDVP
(d)VHDPGRL
(e)None of these
Ans:( b ) DPVHMGR

75.48236017
(a)RLGDLMHV
(b)BNDPGMRH
(c)VHMGDMRL
(d)HNPGBMHV
(e)None of these
Ans:( e ) None of these

Directions (Qs. 76?80) :the news item given in each
question below is to be classified into one of the
following five areas.
(a) Political and Social, (b) sports and Culture, (c)
Science and Health
(d) Economics and Commerce, and (e) Miscellaneous
76.International Film Festival of India was organized
in Chennai recently.
Ans:( b ) sports and Culture

77.India will host 2010 Commonwealth Games
Ans:( b ) sports and Culture

78.Sustained efforts are needed to secure the release
of hotages.
Ans:( e ) Miscellaneous

79.India and Japan are considering to have dialogue on
defence issue.
Ans:( a ) Political and Social

80.New vaccine MMR has been developed for children.
Ans:( c ) Science and Health

TEST ?III :: ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Qs. 81?90) :In the following
passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against
each, five words are suggested, one of which fills the
blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each
case.
Fourteen centuries ago when the world was
much younger, the ruler of all India, Rajah Balhait, was
??..(151) about his people. A new game of dice, called
hard, had ???(152) the imagination of his subjects,
teaching them that chance alone-a-roll of the dice guided
the ???(153) of men. All who played this game of fortune
lost their ???(155) in the virtues of courage, prudence,
wisdom and hope. It bred a fatalism that was ???(155) the
spirit of the kingdom.
Raja Balhait commissioned Sissa, an
intelligent courter at his court to find an answer to this
???(156) After much ???(157) the clever Sissa invented
another game. Chaturanga, the exact ???(158) of hard, in
which the four elements of the Indian army were the key
pleces. In the game these pieces-chariots, horses,
elephants and foot soldiers-joined with a royal counselor
to defend their king and defeat the enemy. Forceful ???
(159) was demanded of the players?not luck. Chaturanga
soon became more popular than hard, and the ???(160) to
the Kingdom was over.

81.(a)concerned
(b)confident
(c)ignorant
(d)indifferent
(e)partisan
Ans:( a ) concerned

82.(a)propelled
(b)enshrined
(c)captured
(d)activated
(e)enhanced
Ans:( c ) captured

83.(a)communities
(b)ways
(c)abnormalities
(d)destiny
(e)groups
Ans:( d ) destiny

84.(a)bravado
(b)interest
(c)peace
(d)wealth
(e)faith
Ans:( b ) interest

85.(a)appalling
(b)crushing
(c)moistening
(d)promoting
(e)overwhelming
Ans:( e ) overwhelming

86.(a)apprehension
(b)risk
(c)problem
(d)game
(e)destiny
Ans:( e ) destiny

87.(a)deliberation
(b)absorption
(c)insight
(d)hesitation
(e)reluctance
Ans:( a ) deliberation

88.(a)nature
(b)equivalent
(c)picture
(d)opposite
(e)replica
Ans:( d ) opposite

89.(a)prediction
(b)concentration
(c)manipulation
(d)attack
(e)fortune
Ans:( b ) concentration

90.(a)devastation
(b)anxiety
(c)impeachment
(d)nuisance
(e)threat
Ans:( e ) threat

Directions (Qs. 91?95) :Read each sentence
to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence.
The number of that part is the answer. If there is not
error, the answer is ?E?. (Ignore errors of punctuation,
if any)
91.If your don?t (a) / understand any of these words
(b) / you could (c) / always refer a dictionary. (d) / No
error (e)
Ans:( e )

92.Tea is so hot (a) / that she (b) / can (c) / take
it. (d) / No error (e)
Ans:( a )

93.The teacher said (a) / that the earth (b) / moves
round (c) / the sun. (d) / No error (e)
Ans:( e )

94.He told to me (a) / that he (b) / was going away
(c) / the next day. (d) / No error (e)
Ans:( b )

95.The lecturer says (a) / that Solomon won the
respect (b) / of all races and (c) / classes by his
justice. (d) / No error (e)
Ans:( e )

Directions (Qs. 96?100) :In each of the
following questions, select the most appropriate word from
among the five words given below the sentence to fill in
the blanks in the sentence so as to complete it
meaningfully.
96.Sunil was ???asleep and could not be easily
awakened.
(a)high
(b)fast
(c)severe
(d)total
(e)has
Ans:( b ) fast

97.The vehicle did not come to a sudden halt since he
braked ???
(a)immediately
(b)silently
(c)gently
(d)completely
(e)detected
Ans:( c ) gently

98.I saw him going escorted ??? two policemen.
(a)with
(b)against
(c)by
(d)on
(e)for
Ans:( c ) by

99.Madhav is a sick man and has to be taken to the
doctor ???
(a)usually
(b)timely
(c)seldom
(d)frequently
(e)avoided
Ans:( d ) frequently

100.The child was left in the servants ???
(a)care
(b)duty
(c)work
(d)help
(e)innocence
Ans:( a ) care

Page - 4

Directions (Qs. 101?105) : Rearrange the following six sentences I, II, III, IV, V and VI in proper equence so as to form a meaningful paragraph. Then answer the questions given below them.

I.We were interested by contrast in understanding what lessons actual teams and non-teams had for others to choose to struggle with change and performance.
II.Still, we suspected that most of these focused on persuading readers that ?terms are important?.
III.After all we thought teams are a well-known subject and there must be a thousand books on the subject already.
IV.By going down this path we hope to discover something to say that was different from most books on the subject.
V.We approached the idea of a book on teams cautiously.
VI.Alternatively they focused on providing you to advise on building teams as an objective in it self.

101.Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence?
(a)I
(b)II
(c)VI
(d)III
(e)IV
Ans:( d ) III

102.Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence ?
(a)V
(b)I
(c)II
(d)III
(e)IV
Ans:( a ) V

103.Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence ?
(a)V
(b)III
(c)II
(d)VI
(e)IV
Ans:( c ) II

104.Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence ?
(a)III
(b)IV
(c)II
(d)VI
(e)I
Ans:( e ) I

105.Which of the following will be the LAST sentence ?
(a)III
(b)IV
(c)V
(d)VI
(e)II
Ans:( b ) IV

Directions (Qs. 106?110) :In each sentence
below four words have been printed in bold type, which are
numbered (A), (B), (C), (D). One of these words may be
either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the
sentence. The number of that word is the answer. If all
the four words are spelt correctly, the answer is (E),
i.e., all correct.
106.He had experienced (a) / a purposefully (b) /
discussion (c) / on topics of our interest. (d) / All
correct (e)
Ans:( b )

107.To solve a (a) / problem, one needs to have (b) /
intelligent and firm (c) / determination. (d) / All correct
(e)
Ans:( c )

108.Many legends (a) / superstions endow the moon with
(b) / a beauty and mistery which will (c) / linger for
countless years. (d) / All correct (e)
Ans:( c )

109.People in our country are distressed (a) / by the
spate of strikes, an almost (b) / perpetual go-slow and
(c) / increadibly low productivity. (d) / All correct (e)
Ans:( d )

110.The faces of the (a) / twins were so (b) /
identical that we could not (c) / differentiate between
them. (d) / All correct (e)
Ans:( c )

Directions (Qs. 111?115) : In each of the following
questions five words are given, which are numbered I, II,
III, IV and V. By using all the five words, each only
once, you have to frame a meaningful and grammatically
correct sentence. The correct order of the words is the
answer. Choose from the five alternatives the one having
the correct order of words and mark it as your answer on
the answer sheet.
111.I. interested II. inIII.
children
IV. areV. games
(a)III, IV, I, II, V
(b)V, IV, I, II, III
(c)III, IV, V, I, II
(d)III, V, IV, I, II
(e)III, IV, II, V, I
Ans:( a ) III, IV, I, II, V

112.I. wasII. toIII. he
VI. goV. ready
(a)III, I, II, IV, V
(b)I, III, IV, II, V
(c)III, IV, II, V, I
(d)I, II, IV, III, V
(e)III, I, V, II, IV
Ans:( e ) III, I, V, II, IV

113.I.foundII.lostIII.his
IV.bookV.we
(a)V, II, III, I, IV
(b)III, IV, II, V, I
(c)V, I, III, II, IV
(d)V, II, III, IV, I
(e)III, IV, V, II, I
Ans:( c ) V, I, III, II, IV

114.I.ofII.heIII.proud
IV.meV.was
(a)V, II, IV, I, III
(b)II, V, IV, I, III
(c)IV, V, III, I, II
(d)II, V, III, I, IV
(e)II, III, V, I, IV
Ans:( d ) II, III, V, I, IV

115.I.decisionII.happyIII.made
IV.yourV.me
(a)IV, III, V, II, I
(b)IV, I, III, V, II
(c)II, I, III, V, IV
(d)IV, I, V, III, II
(e)II, III, V, IV, I
Ans:( b ) IV, I, III, V, II

Directions (Qs. 116?120) :In the following
questions, five words are given out of which only one is
mis-spelt. Find that mis-spelt word and indicate it in the
Answer Sheet.
116.(a)combination
(b)exageration
(c)hallucination
(d)admonition
(e)clinical
Ans:( b ) exageration

117.(a)sacrosanct
(b)sacrelege
(c)sacred
(d)sacrament
(e)segment
Ans:( b ) sacrelege

118.(a)allitration
(b)allowance
(c)almighty
(d)almanac
(e)illicit
Ans:( a ) allitration

119.(a)idiosyncrasy
(b)idealise
(c)idiosy
(d)ideology
(e)ieonoclass
Ans:( c ) idiosy

120.(a)jaundise
(b)jasmine
(c)jevelin
(d)jarving
(e)judgement
Ans:( a ) jaundise

Directions (Qs. 121?130) :Read the following
passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words/phrases in the passage are printed in bold to
help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Nature is an infinite source of beauty. Sunrise
and sunset, mountains and rivers, lakes and glaciers,
forests and fields provide joy and bliss to the human mind
and heart for hours together. Everything in nature is
splendid and divine. Everyday and every season of the year
has a peculiar beauty to unfold. Only one should have
eyes to behold it and a heart to feel it like the English
poet William Wordsworth who after seeing daffodils
said: ?And then my heart with pleasure fills and dances
with the daffodils?.
Nature is a great teacher. The early man was
thrilled with beauty and wonders of nature. The Aryans
worshipped nature. One can learn the lessons in the vast
school of nature. Unfortunately the strife, the stress
and the tension of modern life have made people immune to
beauties of nature. Their life is so full of care that
they have no time to stand and stare. They cannot enjoy
the beauty of lowing rivers, swinging trees, flying birds
and majestic mountains and hills. There is however, a cry
to go back to village from the concrete and artificial
jungle of cities. Hence the town planners of today pay
special attention to provide enough number of natural
scenic spots in town planning. To develop a balanced
personality, one needs to have a healthy attitude which can
make us appreciate and enjoy the beauty of nature.
There is other balm to soothe our tired soul and
listless mind than the infinite nature all around us. We
should enjoy it fully to lead a balanced and harmonious
life, full of peace and tranquility.
121.Which of the following words has the SAME meaning
as the word care as used in the passage ?
(a)grief
(b)want
(c)needs
(d)pleasure
(e)prejudices
Ans:( a ) grief

122.Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning
of the word unfold as used in the passage.
(a)declare
(b)conceal
(c)describe
(d)perpetuate
(e)evolve
Ans:( b ) conceal

123.Which of the following statements is not made in
the passage about Nature?
(a)Nature is an infinite source of beauty
(b)Everything in nature is splendid and divine
(c)Nature is a great teacher
(d)The Aryans worshipped Nature
(e)The early man was scared of Nature
Ans:( e ) The early man was scared of Nature

124.What is needed to develop balanced personality?
(a)interpersonal skills
(b)reading poetry
(c)healthy attitude
(d)going back to villages
(e)None of these
Ans:( c ) healthy attitude

125.Why do people not enjoy the beauty of Nature ?
(a)They are running after material pleasures
(b)They do not consider nature as balm to
soothe their fired minds
(c)Their life is full of worries and tensions
(d)They are afraid of nature
(e)None of these
Ans:( c ) Their life is full of worries and
tensions

126.What should we do to enjoy tranquil life ?
(a)Get totally immersed in our daily routine
(b)Believe that nature is infinite source of
beauty
(c)Lead a disciplined and dedicated life
(d)Enjoy the nature around us
(e)Form a habit of daily physical exercise
Ans:( d ) Enjoy the nature around us

127.What are the town planners doing today?
(a)Providing facilities for enjoying nature
(b)Establishing balance between concrete and
artificial jungle of cities
(c)Supporting the cry to go back to villages
(d)Making efforts to inculcate healthy
attitude among people
(e)None of these
Ans:( a ) Providing facilities for enjoying
nature

128.Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning
of the word listless as used in the passage
(a)active
(b)progressive
(c)backward
(d)hidden
(e)impure
Ans:( a ) active

129.Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning
of the word soothe as used in the passage ?
(a)stabilize
(b)excite
(c)propagate
(d)nature
(e)strengthen
Ans:( b ) excite

130.According to the author of the passage, Nature
(a)is the ultimate salvation of man
(b)is the creator of this universe
(c)brings uniformity in all seasons
(d)maintains homeostasis in human beings

Free Spoken English Course

2009-06-09T22:19:00.000-07:00

Do you want to learn spoken english free of cost.

If you want to speak english fluently and confidently and thus develop your personality this course is for you.

100% FREE 100% FREE 100% FREE

Improve your english language quickly with this highly effective course. Be confident to attend interviews, meetings and gatherings.

HOW TO GET THIS COURSE

Click on the link below to recieve the course

http://freecoachingclass.blogspot.com/

( Be quick---offer ends shortly)

Dont miss the chance. This course will throw away your inferiority complex.

Course material

The course consists of two e-books

1. TALK A LOT ENGLISH COURSE - PART I

2. TALK A LOT ENGLISH COURSE - PART II

Please visit http://freecoachingclass.blogspot.com/ ( A website which gives coaching in spoken english, for bank exams, railway exams, UPSC, State PSC , Defence services exams) to get the course immediately.

andhra bank 2007

2009-06-08T21:16:00.001-07:00

Exam Name:

Clerical Recruitment

Conducted By:

Andhra Bank

Conducted in:

Dec 2007

Topic:

Part II (Numerical Ability)

Number of Questions:

Directions (51-75): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?

51. 832.456-539.982-123.321=?

(1) 196.153

(2) 149.153

(3) 169.153

(4) 176.135

(5) None of these

52. ? x 19 = 7828

(1) 411

(2) 412

(3) 413

(4) 414

(5) 415

53. 236.69+356.74 = 393.39 + ?

(1) 200.04

(2) 201.04

(3) 200.14

(4) 202.14

(5) 203.04

54. 734 / ? = 91.75

(1) 8

(2) 6

(3) 4

(4) 10

(5) None of these

55. x (35 x 15 x 10) / (25 x 2) = ?

(1) 105

(2) 115

(3) 70

(4) 35

(5) None of these

56. 5938+4456+2891 = ?

(1) 15255

(2) 14285

(3) 13285

(4) 12385

(5) None of these

57. 859.05 + 428.89+663.17=?

(1) 1585.91

(2) 1286.94

(3) 1950.02

(4) 1950.11

(5) 1951.01

58. 434 x 645=?

(1) 27840

(2) 297930

(3) 279903

(4) 279930

(5) None of these

59. 7 x ? =29.05

(1) 4.05

(2) 4.15

(3) 3.95

(4) 4.28

(5) None of these

60. 725 / 25 - 13 = ?

(1) 16

(2) 29

(3) 12

(4) 18

(5) None of these

61. (558 x 45) / (18 x 45) = ?

(1) 314

(2) 313

(3) 312

(4) 311

(5) None of these

62. 806 / 26 =?

(1) 30

(2) 32

(3) 34

(4) 36

(5) None of these

63. 559 + 995 = ? x 16

(1) 92.05

(2) 95.25

(3) 93.15

(4) 94.35

(5) None of these

64. ((337 +146) x 8)=?

(1) 3884

(2) 1515

(3) 3864

(4) 1505

(5) 3846

65.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

66. 4758-2782-1430=?

(1) 356

(2) 396

(3) 486

(4) 546

(5) None of these

67. 9.1 x 7.5 x 6.2 =?

(1) 423.25

(2) 68.25

(3) 593.775

(4) 472.5

(5) None of these

68.

(1) 43

(2) 45

(3) 47

(4) 49

(5) 51

69.

(1) 1444

(2) 1442

(3) 1448

(4) 1456

(5) 1460

70.

(1) 25

(2) 64

(3) 8

(4) 7.5

(5) None of these

71. 248 of +110 of 20% = ?

(1) 192

(2) 202

(3) 212

(4) 239

(5) 242

72.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

73.

(1) 1511

(2) 1531

(3) 1515

(4) 1553

(5) 1521

74. 484 of + 366 of = ?

(1) 663

(2) 844

(3) 668

(4) 848

(5) 666

75. 280% of 460 =?

(1) 1188

(2) 1284

(3) 1288

(4) 1280

(5) None of these

76. Which of the following is equal to 30 x 246?

(1) 118 x 13+209 x 42

(2) 174 x 10+222 x 19

(3) 173 x 12+221 x 24

(4) 169 x 16+167 x 50

(5) None of these

77. The cost of 9 kgs. of sugar is Rs. 279. What is the cost of 153 kgs. of sugar?

(1) Rs. 3.377

(2) Rs. 4.473

(3) Rs. 4.377

(4) Rs. 4.743

(5) Rs. 4.347

78. A bus travels at the speed of 49 kmph. and reaches its destination in 7 hours. What is the distance covered by the bus?

(1) 343 km

(2) 283 km

(3) 353 km

(4) 245 km

(5) 340 km

79. th of th of a number is 82. What is the number?

(1) 410

(2) 820

(3) 420

(4) 220

(5) None of these

80. What is the least number to be added to 1500 to make it a perfect square?

(1) 20

(2) 21

(3) 22

(4) 23

(5) None of these

81. The sum of three consecutive integers is 39. Which of the following is the largest among the three?

(1) 12

(2) 15

(3) 13

(4) 16

(5) None of these

82. Find the average of the following set of scores:

118, 186, 138, 204, 175, 229

(1) 148

(2) 152

(3) 156

(4) 160

(5) 175

83. A banana costs Rs. 2.25 and an apple costs Rs. 3.00. What will be the total cost of 4 dozen of bananas and 3 dozen of apples?

(1) Rs. 216

(2) Rs.108

(3) Rs. 189

(4) Rs. 225

(5) Rs. 162

84. How many pieces of 8.6 metres long cloth can be cut out of a length of 455.8 metres cloth?

(1) 43

(2) 48

(3) 55

(4) 53

(5) 62

85. The product of two successive numbers is 3192. What is the smallest number?

(1) 59

(2) 58

(3) 57

(4) 56

(5) None of these

86. What is 184 times 156?

(1) 28704

(2) 29704

(3) 30604

(4) 27604

(5) None of these

87. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

5989 48 11=?

(1) 1375

(2) 1370

(3) 1372

(4) 1368

(5) 1365

88. If an amount of Rs. 15,487 is divided equally among 76 students, approximately how much amount will each student get?

(1) Rs. 206

(2) Rs. 210

(3) Rs. 204

(4) Rs. 218

(5) Rs. 212

89. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

6417 5704 4991 4278 3565 2852 ?

(1) 2408

(2) 2426

(3) 7310

(4) 7130

(5) 2139

90. Rinku and Pooja started a business initially with Rs. 5,100 and Rs. 6,600 respectively. If the total profit is Rs. 2.730 what is Rinku's share in the profit?

(1) Rs. 1,530

(2) Rs. 1,540

(3) Rs. 1,200

(4) Rs. 1,180

(5) None of these

91. 25% of the total cost of a plot of area 280 sq. feet is Rs. 1,32,370. What is the rate per sq. ft. of the plot?

(1) Rs. 2,091

(2) Rs. 1,981

(3) Rs. 1,991

(4) Rs. 1,891

(5) None of these

92. If the difference between a number and one fifth of it is 84, what is the number?

(1) 95

(2) 100

(3) 105

(4) 108

(5) 112

93. The respective ratio of the ages of Richa and Shelly is 5: 8. The ratio of their ages 10 years hence would be 7: 10 respectively. What is the present age of Shelly?

(1) 45 years

(2) 40 years

(3) 35 years

(4) 30 years

(5) 25 years

94. A student scores 64% marks in 6 papers of 150 marks each. He scores 25% of his total obtained marks in Hindi and English together. How much is his total score for both these papers?

(1) 120

(2) 124

(3) 140

(4) 144

(5) 150

95. When the original price of toy was increased by 25%, the price of one dozen toys was Rs. 300. What was the original price of one toy?

(1) Rs. 24

(2) Rs. 29

(3) Rs. 30

(4) Rs. 15

(5) Rs. 20

96. If 3x + 5y = 44 and 10x -2y = 16, what is the value of x?

(1) 7

(2) 3

(3) 5.5

(4) 6.5

(5) None of these

97. 15 persons complete a job in 3 days. How many days will 10 persons take to complete the same job?

(1) 2

(2) 5

(3)

(4)

(5)

98. The owner of an electronics shop charges his customer 25% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 11,500 for a television set, then what was the cost price of the television set?

(1) Rs. 9,200

(2) Rs. 7,200

(3) Rs. 8,600

(4) Rs. 9,800

(5) Rs. 10,000

99. Sumit obtained a total of 1012 marks out of 1150 in an examination. What is his percentage in the examination?

(1) 86

(2) 88

(3) 84

(4) 90

(5) None of these

100. What should replace both the question marks in the following equation?

(1) 126

(2) 124

(3) 130

(4) 132

(5) 136

ANSWERS

51. (3), 52. (2), 53. (1), 54. (1), 55. (1), 56. (3), 57. (4), 58. (4), 59. (2), 60. (1)
61. (5), 62. (5), 63. (2), 64. (3), 65. (2), 66. (4), 67. (1), 68. (3), 69. (1), 70. (4)
71. (4), 72. (2), 73. (5), 74. (3), 75. (3), 76. (3), 77. (4), 78. (1), 79. (2), 80. (2)
81. (5), 82. (5), 83. (1), 84. (4), 85. (4), 86. (1), 87. (3), 88. (3), 89. (5), 90. (5)
91. (4), 92. (3), 93. (2), 94. (4), 95. (5), 96. (2), 97. (5), 98. (1), 99. (2), 100. (1)

This is in series of the past year Question Papers for SSC (Commercial Audit) Examination. We have divided the Question Paper in four sections. In Part I we will coverGeneral Knowledge. Please read this carefully.

Part I : General Awareness

1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability.
2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.
3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Four

4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy
(b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy
(d) polity.

5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.

6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.

7. Who is called the ‘Father of History'?
(a) Plutarch
(b) Herodotus
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny

8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti.
(b) Sruti.
(c) Jnana.
(d) Siksha.

9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.

11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency.
(b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency.
(d) Hot currency.

12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDP
(b) Disposable income
(c) NNP
(d) Per capita income

13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector.
(b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector.
(d) All these sectors.

14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade.
(b) Internal trade.
(c) International trade.
(d) Free trade.

15. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)

16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.

17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods.
(b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods.
(d) Economic goods.

18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin
(b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson
(d) A.Marshall

19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas.
(b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid.
(d) gas dispersed in gas.

20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide
(b) Silver bromide
(c) Potassium nitrate
(d) Sodium chloride.

21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) Methane.
(b) Ethane and butane.
(c) propane and butane.
(d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.

22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati' ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Ozonoloysis

23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Orange
(d) Red

24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action.
(b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature.
(d) very low cost.

25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara
(d) Rohini

26. What is the full form of ‘AM' regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement
(b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching
(d) Amplitude Modulation.

27. Who is the author of Gandhi's favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das
(b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta
(d) Sant Gyaneshwar

28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever
(b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) Malaria

29. What is the principal ore of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite
(b) Copper
(c) Lignite
(d) Bauxite

30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) The UK

31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet
(d) Finance Ministry

32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) " all other things variable "
(b) "other things increasing"
(c) "other things being equal"
(d) "all other things decreasing"

33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar
(d) Shabana Azmi

34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate.
(b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate.
(d) Exchange Rate.

35. India's biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways.
(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector.
(d) the India Telecommunication System.

36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute.
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.

37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India
(b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India
(d) The Reserve Bank of India

38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit
(d) Current deficit

39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production.
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.

40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate.
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.

41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change
(b) Force
(c) Tolerance
(d) Basic Rights for the individual

42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision
(b) Management
(c) Marketing
(d) Risk bearing

43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.' in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital.
(b) human capital.
(c) tangible physical capital.
(d) working capital.

44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km
(b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km
(d) 1,000 km

45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir.

46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.

47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos
(b) Chetak
(c) Astra
(d) Tejas

48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair
(b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook
(d) Gordon Brown.

49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France.
(b) China.
(c) Germany.
(d) South Africa.

50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla
(b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty
(d) B.B.Tandon

51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour - In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath
(d) Shining India and BJP.

52. What was the original name of "Nurjahan"?
(a) Jabunnisa
(b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa
(d) Jahanara

53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878

54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton.
(b) Lord Ripon.
(c) Lord Dufferin.
(d) Lord Curzon.

55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature.
(b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming.
(d) caste society.

56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi.
(b) Vattapi.
(c) Trichnapalli.
(d) Mahabalipuram.

57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi
(b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade
(d) K.T.Telang

58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.

59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones
(b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipse
(d) Solar eclipse.

60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Decleration.
(b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms.
(d) The Rowlatt Act.

61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.

62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Algae d) Fungi

63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.

64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus
(d) Diabetes sugarensis

65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.

66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
(a) of no use to plants.
(b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants.
(d) utilized through micro-organisms.

67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes
(b) isomorphous
(c) isomers
(d) isobars

68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool.
(b) boat.
(c) ship.
(d) weapon.

69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins.

70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.

71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.

72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla
(b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Vishkhapatnam.

73. "Slash and Burn agriculture" is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation.
(b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing.
(d) shifting cultivation.

74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.

75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall.
(b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area.
(d) amount of percolation.

Answers Part - I

1. (d)	2. (d)	3. (b)	4. (c)	5. (a)
6. (d)	7. (b)	8. (b)	9. (a)	10. (b)
11. (d)	12. (a)	13. (a)	14. (b)	15. (c)
16. (a)	17. (d)	18. (a)	19. (a)	20. (b)
21. (a)	22. (b)	23. (b)	24. (a)	25. (d)
26. (c)	27. (c)	28. (d)	29. (d)	30. (a)
31. (c)	32. (c)	33. (c)	34. (a)	35. (c)
36. (d)	37. (b)	38. (a)	39. (a)	40. (b)
41. (d)	42. (a)	43. (b)	44. (a)	45. (c)
46. (c)	47. (d)	48. (d)	49. (b)	50. (a)
51. (c)	52. (d)	53. (d)	54. (b)	55. (a)
56. (b)	57. (c)	58. (d)	59. (c)	60. (d)
61. (a)	62. (a)	63. (a)	64. (d)	65. (d)
66. (a)	67. (b)	68. (b)	69. (a)	70. (b)
71. (d)	72. (d)	73. (a)	74. (d)	75. (a)

sample maths

2009-06-08T21:14:00.001-07:00

Sample Paper for SSC Section Officer Exam was a great hit. Second in the series is the Sample Paper for Maths (Arithmetic).

1. The LCM of 2/9, 4/15 & 1/30 is how many times the HCF of 7/15, 21/40 & 14/15?

1. 160/7 2. 7/160 3. 120/7 4. 90/7

2. 0.0874 + 1.236 - 0.0012 + ? = 1.489

1. 0.1568 2. 0.1578 3. -0.1668 4. 0.1658

3. 30% of 300 - 40% of 400 + 50% of 500 = ?

1. 1800 2. 180 3. 18 4. 18000

4. If 243 x 162 = 39366, then 3936.600 ÷ 0.243 = ?

1. 1620 2. 16200 3. 162 4. 162000

5. 114.01 + 222.01 + ? = 400

1. 63.98 2. 43.78 3. 736.02 4. -53.98

6. The difference between the circumference and the radius of a circle is 37 cm (use p = 22 / 7). The diameter of the circle is

1. 7 cm 2. 14 cm 3. 33 cm 4. 37 cm

7. The LCM of two multiples of 12 is 1056. If one of the numbers is 132, the other number should be

1. 12 2. 72 3. 96 4. Data inadequate

8. The average of seven results is 5; the average of first three is 3, and that of the last three is 7. The fourth result is

1. 6 2. 5 3. 4 4. 3

9. A man walking at the speed of 4 kmph crosses a square field diagonally in 3 minutes. The area of the field is

1. 20000 sq m 2. 25000 sq m 3. 18000 sq m 4. 19000 sq m

10. The area of a rectangular field is 144 sq m. If the length is increased by 5 m, its area increases by 40 sq m. The length of the field is

1. 12 m 2. 14.4 m 3. 16 m 4. 18 m

11. A, B and C are partners and make a profit of Rs. 4800 which is distributed among them in the ratio 6:5:4. The difference of the amounts A and C received is

1. Rs. 640 2. Rs. 1290 3. Rs. 1280 4. Rs. 1600

12. A, B, & C enter into a partnership with investments in the ratio 3:4:9. If at the end of the year, B's share of profit is Rs. 6175, what is the total profit?

1. Rs. 24300 2. Rs. 24600 3. Rs. 24700 4. Rs. 24100

13. X and Y enter into a partnership. X contributes Rs. 8000 and Y contributes Rs. 10000. At the end of six months they introduce Z, who contributes Rs. 6000. After the lapse of three years, they find that the firm has made a profit of Rs. 9660. Find the share of each.(in Rs.)

1. X-3240, Y-4200, Z-2200 2. X-3360, Y-4400, Z-2100 3. X-3360, Y-4200, Z-2100 4. 3260, Y-4000, Z-2200

14. Umedh Singh and Zorawar Singh invested in a business. They earned some profit which they divided in the ratio 2:3. If Umedh Singh invested Rs. 24, the amount invested by Zorawar Singh was

1. Rs. 36 2. Rs. 16 3. Rs. 30 4. Rs. 48

15. Abdul and Aamir invest respectively Rs. 30000 and Rs. 40000 in a business. Abdul receives Rs. 100 per month out of the profit for running the business and the rest of the profit is divided in proportion to the investments. If in a year Abdul totally receives Rs. 3900, what does Aamir receive?

1. Rs. 3500 2. Rs. 3600 3. Rs. 3900 4. Rs. 4200

16. 7 women and 6 men can do what 4 men and 11 women can do in the same time. 19 women can do the same job in how much time?

1. Same 2. Half 3. One-third 4. Two-third

17. If A can walk a certain distance in 40 days when he takes rest 9 hours each day; how much long will he take to walk the same distance twice as fast and rest twice as long each day?

1. 50 days 2. 45 days 3. 38 days 4. 16 days

18. If 20 men or 25 women or 30 boys can do a piece of work in 16 days by working 10 hours a day, then how many men with 10 women and 18 boys can do 3 ¼ times the same work in 26 days by working 8 hours daily?

1. 35 men 2. 30 men 3. 40 men 4. 48 men

19. Some persons can do a job in 12 days. Two times the number of those persons will do half of that job in

1. 6 days 2. 4 days 3. 12 days 4. 3 days

20. 400 men working 9 hrs a day complete ¼ th of the work in 10 days. The number of additional men, working 8 hrs a day, required to done the remaining work in 20 days is

1. 675 2. 275 3. 250 4. 225

21. 25% of 240 will be how much more than 33.33% of 180?

1. 5 2. 10 3. 6 4. Nil

22. 350% of a number is what percent of 250% of that number?

1. 40% 2. 44% 3. 140% 4. 71%

23. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and the width decreased by 20%, the area of the rectangle will

1. Decrease by 4% 2. Increase by 4%

3. Decrease by 1% 4. Not change at all

24. A shopkeeper increases the price of a commodity by 25% and again increases it by 20%. The net percent increase is

1. 45% 2. 40% 3. 50% 4. 47%

25. The cost of a pant is 60% of the cost of a coat and 300% of the cost of a shirt. If all three cost Rs. 2160, the cost of the shirt will be

1. Rs. 290 2. Rs. 280 3. Rs. 360 4. Rs. 240

26. If sold for Rs. 247.50, an object gives a profit of 12.5%. The cost price is

1. Rs. 210 2. Rs. 220 3. Rs. 224 4. Rs. 225

27. A fruit seller purchases oranges at the rate of 3 for Rs. 5 and sells them at 2 for Rs. 4. His profit in the transaction is

1. 20% 2. 25% 3. 15% 4. 10%

28. A merchant sold his goods for Rs. 75 at a profit percent equal to the cost price. His cost price is

1. Rs. 50 2. Rs. 60 3. Rs. 80 4. Rs. 100

29. A man buys an article at ¾ th of its value and sells it for 20% more than its value. His profit based on the cost is

1. 45% 2. 50% 3. 60% 4. 75%

30. The LCM of numbers 12, 18, & 24 is how much more than their HCF?

1. 66 2. 69 3. 70 4. 72

31. Find the minimum number of square tiles of equal size for the floor of a room which is 1 m 4 dm 7 cm long and 1 m 8 dm 2 cm wide.

1. 250 2. 266 3. 140 4. 145

32. The average of first five prime numbers is

1. 5.40 2. 5.70 3. 5.60 4. 5.80

33. The average weight of 8 men is increased by 1.5 kg when one of them who weighs 65 kg is replaced by a new man. The weight of the new man is

1. 76 kg 2. 76.5 kg 3. 76.7 kg 4. 77 kg

34. A man distributed Rs. 100 equally among his friends. If there had been five more friends, each would have received one rupee less. How many friends did he have?

1. 20 2. 30 3. 40 4. 50

35. In an exam, the average was found to be 50 marks. After detecting computer errors, the marks of 100 candidates had to be changed from 90 to 60 each and the average came down to 45. The total number of candidates who took the exam was

1. 600 2. 700 3. 500 4. 400

Answers

1. 15221 6.23214 11.13312 16.11242 21.43134 26.21131 31.53411

2009-06-08T21:06:00.000-07:00

BANK CLERICAL EXAM.
The Banking Service Recruitment Boards invite applications for the following posts in the nationalised banks (including State Bank of India) in their respective regions:
1. Clerk
2. Typist (English)
3. Steno (English)
4. Agricultural Clerks
5. Steno (Hindi)
6. Typist (English and Hindi)
7. Steno (English and Hindi)
8. Clerk-cum-Cashier
9. Clerk-cum-Godown Keeper
10. Data Entry Operators
11. Telephone Operators

2. Educational Qualifications-(i) For the post of Clerks and Typists: Bachelor's degree of a recognised University in any discipline or its equivalent recognised as such by the Central Government.
Or
Passed with 50% marks in aggregate in Higher Secondary Examination/(10+2) or 10+2+3 pattern/Eleventh Standard Examination of 11+3 pattern/Intermediate/Pre-University or its equivalent.
Or
Passed with 50% marks in aggregate in Diploma in Banking
recognised by Central/State Government or U.T. Administration.
Or
Passed with 60% marks in aggregate in Matriculation/SSC (old
pattern) /SSLC/10th standard of 10+2+3 pattern or equivalent.

(ii) For the posts of Stenographers, Data Entry Operators, Telephone Operators: A pass in Matriculation/SSC (old pattern) SSLC/I0th standard examination of 10+2+3 pattern or equivalent.

(iii)For the posts of Agricultural Clerks: A degree or Diploma in Agriculture (including Agricultural Engineering) from a recognised University/Institution.

Or
Passed Higher Secondary/12th Standard of 10+2+3 pattern or Intermediate or equivalent examination with Agriculture. as a subject with 50% marks for all candidates except SC/ST/OBC/XS/ OH candidates in whose case the eligibility is a mere pass in these subjects.
Or

A Matriculation/SSC (10th Standard) certificate in case of a Village Level Worker with a minimum of 3 years experience as Village level worker under a Government.

3. Additional Qualifications: Applicants for the post of Typists and Stenographers must have proficiency in Typing andShorthand with the following minimum speed.

Hindi Typing 25 w.p.m.
English Typing 30 w.p.m.
Hindi Shorthand 60 w.p.m. in Hindi shorthand in addition to minimum Hindi Typing speed of 25 w.p.m.
English Shorthand 80 w.p.m. in English shorthand in addition to minimum English Typing speed of30 w.p.m.

4. Age Limits: Not below 18 years and not above 28 years at the time of notification of vacancies. Upper age limit is relaxable in respect of candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, Physically Handicapped persons and Ex-servicemen, etc.
5. Plan of the Examination: The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks for each subject will be as under:

S. No	Test	No. of Questions	Max. Marks	Time Allowed
(A)	OBJECTIVE TESTS			95 Minutes
1.	Reasoning	50	80
2.	Numerical Ability	50	80
3.	Clerical Aptitude	50	40
4.	English Language	50	50*
		200	200
(B)	DESCRIPTIVE PAPER
	Argumentative Questions	4	60	45 Minutes
			* Only Qualifying

N.B.: (i) The candidate has to pass each of the objective and
Descriptive Tests separately.
(ii) There will be negative marks for wrong answers in the
Objective Tests.
(iii)The Tests of Reasoning, Numerical Ability and Clerical Aptitude is considered for merit listing. The other tests of English Language and Descriptive questions will be qualifying.

(iv) Candidates, who pass in each test and rank sufficiently high on the basis of aggregate marks in written examination, would be called for interview/skill test. Final selection will be on the basis of the aggregate marks obtained by the candidate in the written examination and interview shall be strictly according to merit.

6. Syllabus

1. Test of Reasoning: This test would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. The test may include questions on analogies, similarities, differences, space visualisation, problem solving, analysis, judgement, decision-making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning, verbal and figure classification, arithmetical number series, etc. The test will also include questions designed to test the candidate's abilities to deal with abstract ideas and symbols and their relationships, arithmetical computation and other analytical functions.

2. Test of English Language: This is a test to see how well you know English. English language ability would be tested through questions on grammar, vocaoulary, sentence completion, synonyms, antonyms, comprehension of a passage, etc.

3. Test of Numerical Ability: Questions will be designed to test the ability of arithmetical computation of whole numbers, decimals 'and fractions and relationship between numbers. The questions would be based on arithmetical concepts and relationship between numbers and not on complicated arithmetical computations.

4. Test of Clerical Aptitude: The questions in Clerical Aptitude will be set to test the candidate's perceptual accuracy and aptitude. This is the ability to notice similarities and difference between the pairs of names and numbers. Questions in Clerical Aptitude will also assess in addition to perceptual accuracy and aptitude, ability to handle office routine work like filing, abbreviating, indexing, etc.

5. Descriptive Paper: It intends to measure your higher order cognitive abilities as comprehending the situations, etc., and also your language ability. It is a question paper-cum-answer sheet in Hindi and English and the Regional Language and you have to restrict your answers to the space provided on the answer-sheet. Use of supplements is not allowed. You have the option to answer 3 out of 4 questions either in Hindi or in English or in the Regional Language.

N.B.: (i) All the questions should be attempted in the same language. .
(ii) For candidates appearing for the post of Agriculture Clerk, an objective test of Agricultural Knowledge (50 questions, 30 minutes) will also be there. In this test problems relating to agricultural matters will be asked.

7. Initial Pay: About Rs. 4000 in the scale of Rs. 3020-8920.